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The original was posted on /r/askhistorians by /u/OhCountryMyCountry on 2023-08-06 19:10:06.

I’ve seen some suggest that life was not unambiguously worse for many/most in the former Western Empire after Rome fell. I’m surprised by that- considering how integrated the Roman system was, as I would have expected an obvious and significant contraction in material output and wealth. So what are the reasons for saying life wasn’t obviously worse for many/most Western Mediterraneans and Western Europeans after Rome’s collapse, or am I misunderstanding and the improvements/recovery of living standards are only from later in the Medieval period?